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W.Syed
12-19-2011, 12:48 PM
لِمَاذَا الرَّجل غضبان

Does this mean "Why [is] this man angry" or "Why [is] the man angry". I ask about the first one because it says al rajooloo and the second one is based on the fact that the "za" is joined with the "ra" to form zaraooloo.

Thank you for your time.

benss
12-19-2011, 03:52 PM
Sal‚mou'aleikoum wa rahmatoull‚h wa barak‚touh,

good question.
At a first glance I didn't get your question, so i thought that the correct translation was : "Why [is] the man angry" (your second option).

But then, i don't know what would be the correct option.

PS: i don't why i've received a mail from LQToronto system with the object: "Reply to thread 'Question on definite/indefinite nouns ending with fatha", which is not actually the object of your question. Strange :confused:.

Tanweer
12-19-2011, 04:06 PM
I could be wrong, but in my humble opinion:

"Why [is] this man angry" = limaadha haadha ar-rajulu ghadbaanu ?

"Why [is] the man angry" = limaadha ar-rajulu ghadbaanu ?

W.Syed
12-19-2011, 06:10 PM
Sal‚mou'aleikoum wa rahmatoull‚h wa barak‚touh,

good question.
At a first glance I didn't get your question, so i thought that the correct translation was : "Why [is] the man angry" (your second option).

But then, i don't know what would be the correct option.

PS: i don't why i've received a mail from LQToronto system with the object: "Reply to thread 'Question on definite/indefinite nouns ending with fatha", which is not actually the object of your question. Strange :confused:.

That was a previous post of mine that you already posted on, thanks for your time.

Tanweer, I think your humble opinion seems to make sense, I could be wrong though butلماذا means "why" and thus the following الرَّجل would mean "the man". If you wanted to make it "this man" I guess you would need to add what you mentioned.

benss
12-20-2011, 12:00 PM
Sal‚mou'aleikoum wa rahmatoull‚h wa barak‚touh,

Visibly, an answer to such question required advanced knowledge in arabic grammar that we (at least I) don't have.
We can only guess how it is, but it might be that our guess is wrong :).

Just to put the question in another way, if someone could solve that issue, and to explain why we are doubting about the correct answer:

It seems that we suspect لماذا to be a two-word element, that is a (حرف استفهام) which is لما, plus ذا which we suspect to be (اسم اشارة), in which case it would mean in english ""Why is this man angry". Grammatically speaking, it would imply that the word الرَّجل is badal and لماذا mubtada.


Alternatively, if لماذا is a single word, taken as an اسم اشارة then الرَّجل is no longer badal, though it is our mubtada.

So, we surely won't find the solution just by translating in english what is written in arabic. Though, knoweldge in arabic grammar, and especially here the nature and the fonction of the words we are talking about, is necessary to solve that issue and avoid the "arabic-english translation trap".

That was just a comment of course :).