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sinimmar
12-27-2010, 07:09 PM
السلام عليكم

Dear Friends, I want to ask you a few questions:

1. On the first page at the definition of mu'rab and mabni why two different tenses are used? (ماتغير—- مالا يتغير)

2. Is the damir in (كتابُهُ و كتابِهِ) mu'rab or mabni? In the second page it is shown as mabni....

sinimmar
12-30-2010, 07:12 AM
السلام عليكم

Dear Brothers and Sisters,

As I was thinking about my own questions I think I've found the answer of the second one which was:


2. Is the damir in (كتابُهُ و كتابِهِ) mu'rab or mabni? In the second page it is shown as mabni....

My answer is;

In these two إضافة's there seems to be a declension on the ضمير: هو . But it is known that it has no declension because of being مبني . So why is the change from ضمة to كسرة?

I concluded with humbleness that;

The ضمير: هو did not change its harakah because of being معرب . It it was so, it must even have been:

كِتاَبُهِ because of being مضاف إليه. So I think that the change from هُ to هِ is not declension, instead it may be because of some kind of consonance or voice problem.

Am I right? English is not my native language so my explanation may be confusing.

If I am right, there's still first question to be answered...

!مع السلامة

Aaishah
12-31-2010, 11:47 AM
wa 'alaykumus salaam wa raHmatullaah Brother sinimmar,

Regarding the first part of your first question:

i.e Why is the following principle written in the past tense:

فاَلْمُعْرَبُ مَا تَغَيَّرَ آخِرُهُ بِسَبَبِ الْعَامِلِ

(ref: Madinah Book 3, lesson 1)

- then you will find the answer in the following enlightening reply given by our Shaykh to a question similar to yours :

http://www.lqtoronto.com/forums/showthread.php?t=534

(source: Shaykh's Forum)

Regarding the Damiir al-haa, then it is mabniyy-un, as all of the Damaa?ir (pronouns) are mabniyy-un, as stated on page 1, lesson 1, Madinah Book 3 (as you have understood.)

However, why does it appear with a Dammah in:

kitaabu-huu,

- but with a kasrah in:

fii kitaabi-hii

That is a good and subtle observation.

I shall contact our Shaykh Abdur Rahim and hopefully try to get the Shaykh's response to this, as well as the answer to the other part of your first question.

(P.S. Please note: I have temporarily removed your reply containing the quote from Wikipedia as I am unsure if this quote is sound. I will ask our Shaykh to comment on it - if appropriate - since our Shaykh will be more aware of the background of the one he quoted. If suitable, I will add the quote back to the forum in sha Allaah.)

Wassalaamu 'alaikum

Aaishah

sinimmar
12-31-2010, 12:49 PM
السلام عليكم
Dear Sister Aaishah,

Thanks for your kind reply. The answer you've found for my first question which was:



1. On the first page at the definition of mu'rab and mabni why two different tenses are used? (ماتغير—- مالا يتغير)


is very useful indeed. I've seen the reason of usage of past tense in a statement. I am looking forward to the other explanations (mudari') as well. Thanks.

P.S. We are 6 friends in Turkey studying Madina Books and we pray for our Shaikh and you kind brothers and sisters every passing day. To know that there are brothers and sisters who help each other for a better understanding of كلام الله in all over the world is a great feeling.

!في أمان الله

Aaishah
01-01-2011, 08:09 PM
wa 'alaykumus salaam wa raHmatullaah Brother sinimmar,

Our respected Shaykh (may Allaah bless him) has provided a beautiful and in-depth response to your questions here:

http://www.lqtoronto.com/forums/showthread.php?t=599

May Allaah benefit you and all of us by this vast knowledge.

Wassalaamu 'alaikum